Originally Posted by ghostrider

Can someone explain to me why, if the cost for Pam to replace the quilt is $4,500 that means someone has to sell it to her for that amount. So why isn't that the sale price appraisal, too? It's just the other side of the same transaction. I mean, why is the appraisal for sale always lower than the appraisal for insurance? Is it just so the insurance company can make more money on premiums? That's always seemed kind of snarky to me.